this post was submitted on 12 Aug 2023
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Of course they would. The highest rate of gun crime is high gun restriction states.
2A says Shall not be infringed, and a ban on a certain kind of arm sure sounds infringing.
What does gun crime mean in this context?
Does it mean crimes committed with a gun?
Does it mean violations of gun laws? If so, is that normalized with respect to the stricter restrictions in those states?
Is it normalized with respect to total population? With respect to population type (rural versus urban)?
Is it possible that the states with more restrictions have done so because of the rates of those crimes?
"Chicago’s homicide rate is an outlier among major U.S. cities. At a rate of 29 firearm homicides per 100,000 residents, it is six times higher than New York City’s and three times higher than in Los Angeles."
Illinois, and Chicago in particular, is the highest gun crime area in the US and guess what city has the most restrictive gun laws.
Saying "Chicago has the most restrictive gun laws" is something I've heard passed around on FB before. It doesn't surprise me that gang violence and random gun violence happens in more populated areas, and that cities and densely populated states would have crime and laws to match. But I've never seen evidence that Chicago is an outlier for gun laws as a city. I mean, the post here suggests that the "assault weapons ban" is new, so clearly the state hadn't made any laws against semi-auto firearms, large calibre firearms, or large capacity mags until now (recently).