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1063

Multiverse (sh.itjust.works)

submitted 1 week ago by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

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[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 week ago (7 children)

If there are infinite universes, covering all permutations of all properties (i asume thats what they mean by omniverse), then there will be exactly as many universes with a certain property then there are without it. So it is actually 50/50.

In the "multiverse of all possibilities" there will be 50% without a multiverse

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 week ago (5 children)

We're getting into hierarchies of infinities here, look up cardinality. You can have infinities that can't map to every possibility of a higher infinity

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 week ago (4 children)

I know. But I case of the multiverse that many people think about, the one where there is a universe for EVERYTHING, there will be exactly as many universes where triangles exist as there are universes where triangles dont exist. And the same is true for everything else.

And it is exactly the same number, not just the same type of infinity. Because for every universe with triangles there must also exist the exact same universe without triangles (and vice versa), otherwise the multiverse wouldn't contain all possible universes.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

Under quantum mechanics this can't explain non-even distributions. With no effects making high probability events more prevalent than others you can not (reliably) observe differentiated probabilities.

And once again, cardinalites appears. A thing whose possible variations correspond to infinite integers can't match that with have variations matching the real numbers. An infinite line won't correspond to an infinite hypercube in infinite dimensions. Gotta consider combinatorics from statistics too, as well as entropy. The number of permutations mapping to normal states simply has to far exceed the strange states for us to observe a normal universe.

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