this post was submitted on 01 Mar 2025
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People who take a salary -- even a high salary, are most paying their fair share. I think they could make a reasonable argument that they pay way more than most (above 246752, 33% which is more than most people in the country).
Compare that with the wealthy:
From here
1$, meaning he pays ZERO income tax (he likely pays some taxes on his options).
This is somewhat common for wealthy people, adding more brackets on income isn't going get them paying their fair share.
What I believe we non wealthy people want to see is a wealth tax.
You're mad about the wrong thing. He's going to pay an effective tax rate of about 25% when he exercises those options. (Capital gains)
Someone correct me if I'm wrong.
Assuming he pays 25% tax, which i'd be very suspicious about, he's about 2 million short of his current "fair share".
26 000 000 * 0.25 = 6 500 000
26 000 000 * 0.33 = 8 580 000
If he's deferring till retirement, then likely his tax rate is less, and the bank is lending him money which he can spend freely and call a capital loss lowering his effective tax rate when he does incur those taxes.
The thing about being this wealthy is you can afford to pay people to find ways to lower this rate.
I don't think i'm "mad" about this, but concerned. This kind of inequality leads to violent upheaval, and is currently the cause of a whole pile of unnecessary suffering. If we didn't have people that were this wealthy and some of that money was distributed to say education, healthcare, UBI, we could all have a much healthier pleasant life.
your first position is correct; however,
This is factually incorrect unless Canada has a special regime to make it work which would not make sense.
He earns 1$ income, the rest is options, his income is below the minimum taxable. The taxes he pays on options aren't income tax.
Why do you assume that equity would not be treated as income once vested?
I've exercised options from a company in canada, they were taxed distinctly (and more favourably) from income.
He'd have no reason to take his payment this way otherwise. (FWIW Every CEO (both canadian and american) of a wealthy company i've seen has taken their pay in a manner similar to this: most of the comp is in stocks)
Stock grants among any other in kind payment are treated as ordinary income as general rule.
Can somebody confirm this?
The wording is a bit vague.
The only way I can see this working if tax was paid when option was granted hence once it was exercised it would be subject to a more favourable capital gains treatment for the proceeds from exercising.
You don't pay taxes on the option, because you haven't bought the option till you exercise it.
Anyway the amount was kinda fixed (it's been awhile) like 25%, it was also years ago, so things may have changed. They are also distinct from RSU's which i believe aren't taxed as low, but still better than top marginal tax rate for income.
Anyway it doesn't seem like those are really the whole story (https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/36l575/eli5_how_can_it_be_that_ceos_often_pay_an/) -- it looks like the tax escape mechanism is to get deferred stocks - which admittedly for the Tobias case we'd have to see how those stocks were awarded. I still think my point 2 applys - why would he take compensation in this mostly stocks manner (and like every other CEO i've seen) unless there was some benefit.